Question:
Answer:
I submit you’re inferring too much from Scripture. Remember that Jesus, because he is both man and God, is also the primary author of Scripture. And so, for example, Jesus affirms Mary as his mother several times in the writing of the Gospel account of the wedding at Cana (John 2:1-11), even though he is not recorded as saying “Mother” in the recorded dialogue John presents from that event.
For more information on why Jesus call Mary “woman” in John 2, see our Catholic Answer on this subject. And note also that when Elizabeth refers to Mary as the “mother of my Lord” (Luke 2:43), Mary doesn’t correct her for obvious reasons. So we can safely infer that Jesus referred to Mary as his “mother,” even though Scripture doesn’t record it. After all, as the God-man he was and is the paradigm of a loving, faithful Son.